He reasoned that the Jewish copy must be the more accurate of the two, as the Jewish copy was written in Hebrew just like the original Old Testament, while the Septuagint was a translation - and in translating, errors can crop up. "Deuterocanonical" means "second canon." Open this link NOW. As to why the Catholics have more books, it is a matter of ecclesiastical history. The Catholic bible has 73 books, the Protestant only 66. https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3189/why-were-deuterocanonical-books-rejected-in-the-reformation/64103#64103. In 1534, when Luther's Bible translation was published, he moves Deuterocanon to the end of his Old Testament and labels them "Apocrypha". edition of what we in the US call the King James Bible). They included them in the book, yes, and the Book of Common Prayer contained readings of the Apocrypha. Yes, England sold out Christ for considerably more than 30 pieces of silver. Second, the Dead Sea scrolls showed us that the Septuagint was a good translation of the Pre-Septuagint, a different Hebrew text tradition that pre-dated Jesus, rather than a bad translation of the Proto-Masoretic text as Jerome thought. Your answer seems to suggest the Articles supported their inclusion as canon, which is incorrect. In addition, the decision at Trent has many problems. The writing of Scripture continued until the first century A.D., when Revelation was complete. The books were removed when England became committed to putting on the “Catholics are idol worshipppers” show in order to ally with the Islamic Ottoman Empire against the rest of Christian Europe. Back when the Vulgate was being put together Jerome made the points that. There are no clear, definite New Testament quotations from the Apocrypha by Jesus or the apostles. I can in no way detect that the Holy Spirit produced it. The books were not removed so much as re-classified - Reformation-era editions placed the apocryphal works in a separate section between the OT/NT rather than intersperse them within the OT itself. Catholics refer to them as the "deuterocanonical" books (since they were disputed by a few early authors and their canonicity was established later than the rest), while the rest are known as the "protocanonical" books (since their What was he to do with the Deuterocanonical books of the Old Testament, which make explicit doctrines like Purgatory? Oh give me a break. The four which follow have from ancient times had a different reputation. Neither he nor Calvin dared to remove them from the Bible though, as by their time Christians had these books in their bibles for over a thousand years thanks to the Latin Vulgate. This Confession is the time when Protestants finally formalize their rejection of the Deuterocanon, and just completely exclude it from the Bible. The canon of Scripture is the list of 73 books that belong to the Bible. Most importantly, do they belong in the Bible? Were those 7 books removed by the Protestants, or added by the Catholics? It is well known what Jerome states as the common opinion of earlier times. The following list is the 7 books that the Catholics include that the Protestants do not. The Deuterocanon books are a part of the Holy Bible.. This led Jerome to proclaim his great challenge: And further, I give a challenge to my accuser. Additionally, while reviewing the New Testament, Jerome found that where the New Testament quoted the Old Testament in a spot where the Jewish copy and the Septuagint disagreed on the text, the New Testament followed the Jewish copy (and not the Septuagint). This belief that the Septuagint was a poor translation of the Jewish scripture led him to believe that the Septuagint could also have been mistaken in its collection of scriptures, causing Jerome to prefer the shortened Jewish canon over the expanded Septuagint canon. Jews of the late first century onward did not consider them canonical. And to insure that there was no misunderstanding, they listed seven reasons why the apocryphal books were to be categorically rejected as part of the inspired canon.” The Answer Book, p. 99-100, S. C. Gipp, “Question #34: QUESTION: Didn’t … It usually means the parts of the Bible that are only used by some Christian churches (mostly Roman Catholic and Orthodox). First, the New Testament authors frequently quoted from the Septuagint (against the Masoretic). This is a myth that always comes up but is simple to answer. Another discussion point, as it's our main difference in our canons and I wanted to know. Apocrypha (Deuterocanon) introduction, Luther’s Bible, These books are not held equal to the Scriptures, but are useful and good to read, Similar to his Apocrypha, he was skeptical of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation, and stuck them at the end of his New Testament, saying "Up to this point we have had to do with the true and certain chief books of the New Testament. The Hebrew Bible, called “the Old Testament” by Christians, is the Bible written in Hebrew and used in Judaism. Some Orthodox prefer the Eastern term anagignoskomena("things that ar… In addition, most Scripture scholars believe that 1 Maccabees, Judith, Baruch and parts of Wisdom were also originally written in Hebrew.) Removed in this way were books that supported such things as prayers for the dead (Tobit 12:12; 2 Maccabees 12:39-45), Purgatory (Wisdom 3:1-7), intercession of dead saints (2 Maccabees 15:14), and intercession of angels as These books are referred to as the Apocrypha or Deuterocanonical books. Jerome rejected the Deuterocanonical books when he was translating the Bible into Latin circa 450 CE, (see the Vulgate ). Luther was forced to say that Second Maccabees could not be allowed in the debate because it wasn’t canonical. The deuterocanonical books (from the Greek meaning "belonging to the second canon") are books and passages considered by the Catholic Church, the Eastern Orthodox Church, the Oriental Orthodox Churches and the Assyrian Church of the East to be canonical books of the Old Testament but which are considered non-canonical by Protestant denominations. This list, as accepted by the Catholic Church, was affirmed by the Council of Hippo in 393 A.D., by the Council of Carthage in 397 A.D., and by Pope Innocent I in 405 A.D. At the Ecumenical Council of Florence in 1442, the Catholic list was again restated, against those who wanted to include even more books. But finally, in 1546, the Council of Trent, largely in response to the way Martin Luther had separated out these apocryphal books and placed them between the testaments in his German translation of Bible, decreed that they were as fully canonical as the others. Jerome was not aware that there were multiple Hebrew text traditions, he only had knowledge of the one he painstaking obtained that the Jews in the late 4th century used. It wasn't the Reformation that rejected the Deuterocanon. He did so mostly because the books contradicted his personal view of faith. Why weren't the deuterocanonical books considered equal to the Holy Scriptures? Ultimately because of the tremendous influence exercised by the famous fourth century Church Father Saint Jerome, the translator of the Latin Vulgate, upon the Roman Catholic faith, from which Protestantism historically broke off. The phrase which you reference, "the Church doth read for example of life and instruction of manners; but yet it doth not apply them to establish any doctrine", exclude them from being counted as the Word of God. I do not say this in order to aim a blow at the seventy translators; but I assert that the Apostles of Christ have an authority superior to theirs. For from whence could they better draw their dregs? Now let him show that there is anything in the New Testament which comes from the Septuagint but which is not found in the Hebrew, and our controversy is at an end. In addition, the Articles first say "Of the Name and Number of the Canonical Books" regarding the OT, and "the Other books" regarding the Deuterocanon. I admit my knowledge is limited on the Church of England and Anglicans, so any resources you could point me at to better understand are appreciated, and I'll edit my answer to account for. For example Maccabees (can’t remember 1st or 2nd) included pretty strong language for purgatory. Add to this, that they provide themselves with new supports when they give full authority to the Apocryphal books. are not in the canon. In other They are mostly included in the Catholic Old Testament, but not in the Protestant one. If the Deuterocanonical books are part of the Bible, then as Calvin notes you can prove purgatory from the bible. They did this at the Council of Jamnia (about 100 A.D.), at which they rejected the seven Deuterocanonical books because they believed that they were not written in Hebrew. This was activated when I read the book Sirach today and thinking how amazing the information is. Why Were Certain Books Of The Septuagint Plus Rejected? Later Lutherans followed Luther’s Old Testament list and rejected the Deuterocanonical books, but they did not follow his rejection of the New Testament books. 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